"Sweet son of spell check." -Rating Pending
Question #20589 posted on 11/12/2005 3:01 a.m.

Dear 100 Hour Board,

Why do they some time say hath in the Bible,and other times they say has? Is there a difference when they use a -th ending on words and when they use a -s ending?

- Bath

A: Dear Bath,

Here's my problem: I can't find anywhere in the KJV of the Bible where it says "has" and not "hath." (Unless you're talking about footnotes or chapter summaries.)

I searched the KJV Bible on lds.org and then I searched in another site with a better search engine (insert B.C.'s rant about how bad the lds.org search function is) and I still came up with nothing.

The basic answer to your question is that "hath" is the older (Early Middle English?) version of "has." At the time the KJV was translated, people said "he hath," but by the time the footnotes and summaries had been written, we had switched over to "has." This is also the reason that "has" is used in the Book of Mormon and the Doctrine and Covenants; they were translated/recorded later than the KJV Bible.

If you can find some example of "has" in the KJV that I've missed, I'd be happy to take a look at it, but I can't find anything to work with.

- B.C.