Dear 100 Hour Board,
[re: Board Question #20589]
What I meant to ask before in my "hath" question was why do they sometimes use the -th ending in the Bible and other times they use the -s or -es ending? Is there a grammatical reason for this difference? Or was it just happenstance?
Again, I need an example, because I'm not finding anything. Unless you're talking about footnotes or summaries (which are not original to the KJV), I can't find -s or -es endings on third person singular verbs. The only possible exceptions I can see are "is" and "was." Those are conjugations of the verb "to be," which is very irregular. All other verbs that I glance over take -th or -eth in the third person singular conjugation.